When one zheng3ti3 (a semantic portion) ends with a 3rd tone and the following zheng3ti3 begins with a 3rd tone, many people have told me they don’t bian4diao4 (tone sandhi) because of the small separation between the two zheng3ti3. In English, we represent things like that with a comma, though they’re not so big on commas in Chinese. I’d be curious if people here would in fact bian4diao4 there.
More importantly, teacher insists that in this sentence:
Na4 jiu4 bu2 shi4 chuan3tong3 you3 guan3 de5 shi4.
the “tong3” in “chuan3tong3” doesn’t undergo tone sandhi because it’s in a separate zheng3ti3 from the following “you3.” Semantically, I don’t perceive it that way at all, and have no instinct to separate “chuan3tong” from “you3” for even a micro-instance. Within that attributive, “you3” is a verb whose subject is “chuan3tong3,” right? Even aside from any explication of the grammar, would you change “chuan3tong3” to “chuan3tong2 you3 guan1” in my example sentence?