As derived from “Sodom” yes biblical terms.
Which biblical references do you have between Sodom and anal sex?
Don’t understand your question ?
Paraphrase
In which Bible does it state that Sodom was anal sex.
4 Before they had gone to bed, all the men from every part of the city of Sodom—both young and old—surrounded the house. 5 They called to Lot, “Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them.”
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And then Lot offered up his virgin daughters. Bit of an odd choice that.
Strictly speaking it doesn’t, the bible is however against homosexuality , and forced anal sex, and sex before marriage.
Lot went outside to meet them and shut the door behind him 7 and said, “No, my friends. Don’t do this wicked thing. 8 Look, I have two daughters who have never slept with a man. Let me bring them out to you, and you can do what you like with them. But don’t do anything to these men, for they have come under the protection of my roof.”
Wtf. Why is Lot so eager to sell his virgin daughters down the river? And later on these same daughters get their father drunk, rape him, and get pregnant by him!
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So it’s a green light on the consensual anal then? 
What about analingus, with the wife, behind closed doors?
He wishes to save the Angels. However I agree with you on this , but I’m not a biblical scholar , so as a Christian cannot explain every single passage but generally the bible is certainly not pro homosexual at all, very much the opposite.
The Bible that you’re reading still doesn’t reference anal sex.
Up to you , yes. And her
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Are you taking the piss?
The current definition of sodomy which includes, but is not exclusive of, anal intercourse is derived from the myth of Sodom. You’re getting this arse over tit.
Perhaps anal sex was mentioned in one of the Bibles, but up until now all I’ve seen are suggestions.
What do you think they meant by “have sex with them”?
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Maybe a nice cuddle and a cup of cocoa?
That’s New Testament
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It depends upon the biblical translation and/or interpretation, in this case of the word rape.
However, with the translation and interpretation you are using it means “have sex with them”.
Now, prove that’s anal sex
I get what you’re saying, but isn’t it reasonable to conclude that it encompasses anal sex, even if it’s not mentioned specifically?
If you just want a specific mention, it’s not there, I agree.
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Dam that made me laugh, sorry off topic 
